Posted by Clayton on November 1, 2003, at 1:23:06
Help! Can anyone explain if there is a difference between the temporary depletion of dopamine stores caused by amphetamines (and maybe how to stimulate prodction/replenishment) and amphetamine tolerance?
What is the effect on the receptors? (Short and long term?)
Do amphetamines act by the simple rapid release of the stored dopamine or additionally, by promoting its direct production?
Does Ritalin work the same way?
Thanks!
poster:Clayton
thread:275435
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20031030/msgs/275435.html