Posted by DanielJ on October 20, 2003, at 13:24:20
After reading several posts today, I have to ask this question. I have noticed some patients are taking anti-psychotic meds for insomnia, anxiety etc even though they do not have psychosis. Are there risks taking these drugs for lesser problems? Could they in fact cause psychotic behavior in a patient who doesn't have them prior to taking them? They are powerful drugs with an intended use, isn't it a risk to use them where other medications with less side effects would suffice? ps Just asking.
poster:DanielJ
thread:271133
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20031015/msgs/271133.html