Posted by Maximus on September 21, 2003, at 19:56:15
Hi,
About one month ago, my pdoc gave me Seroquel for my insomnia. Being bipolar II, she didn't want to trigger any hypomanic episode with a sedative antidepressants like trazodone or mirtazapine (Remeron). I've always been against the usage of an atypical AP as a sleep aid, but huh, i'm there and it is working pretty well.
I'm taking 50 mg at night and i'm sleeping like a baby. No serious side effects. But i'm still scared of it.
I'm not schizophrenic. I'm bipolar and my current regimen is working well for the main disorder. I'm on Lithium and Lamictal, both working in synergy against hypomania and depression.
So,
1- An AP reduces the firing of dopamine in the brain, or certain regions in the brain? Am i right?
2- If yes, then the Seroquel works against my Lamictal (even if the latter is working only on glutamate receptors and sodium channels)? Is that right?
3- So in the long run (see a couple of years) an atypical AP might be or is probably harmful for a non-schizoprenic guy? (the dampening of dopamine, i mean low drive, low libido, no-creativity, etc.)
Can you enlight me please?
P.S. I tried Benadryl without sucess.
Thanks in advance!
poster:Maximus
thread:262265
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20030917/msgs/262265.html