Posted by zeugma on August 28, 2003, at 9:41:34
In reply to Re: I did a quick search and it's true: » Janelle, posted by Ame Sans Vie on August 28, 2003, at 7:46:09
> I think I understand how this anomaly could be possible... Lexapro is s-citalopram; Celexa is s,r-citalopram. So could it be possible that the r isomer was *not*, in fact, inactive? More specifically, could it be that the r-isomer was in some way *inhibiting* the action of the s-isomer? If so, that would make complete sense, and that's the theory I think I'm going to subscribe to (for now anyway, until I find out for sure). It's just the only thing that seems to make sense -- I definitely found when I took Lexapro that it was about four times as potent as Celexa, with far fewer side effects (especially that horrible somnolence and apathy).
Suspicion confirmed: Check out this study: http://www.biopsychiatry.com/escitalopram-lexapro.htm
poster:zeugma
thread:253492
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20030828/msgs/255022.html