Posted by McPac on August 19, 2003, at 5:55:51
Lar,
I know I asked you this question one time before (I don't believe I understood your answer at that time). Regarding SJWort, why is it okay to take, for example, 1800 mg a day of SJW along with, say, 60 (or more) mg's of Remeron (high doses of both the SJW & the Remeron)....Yet, someone is NOT supposed to take ANY SJW (even a low dose) with 25 mg of Zoloft (a low dose of that med)?.......Just because Zoloft is called an ssri and Remeron is not?<(they still BOTH effect serotonin, Remeron simply affects norepinephrine also). Why is the serotonin syndrome risk of the SJW/Zoloft-low dose combo much greater than the high dose SJW/Remeron combo? (To take it even further, 2400 mg SJW + 100 mg Remeron (HIGH doses of both) would still be fine but 300 mg SJW + 10 mg Zoloft (PUNY doses of both) would not be allowed? That makes no sense yet that seems to be what the going logic is, i.e. SJW + ANY ssri is NOT allowed, YET if a drug is not called an ssri (but still effects serotonin, it just affects something else too) then you can take HIGH doses of both it and SJW? Makes no sense....thanks for any explanation Lar (please, please try to make it clear...my brain is rebelling against complexity right now, lol) As always, much appreciated Lar!!
poster:McPac
thread:252068
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20030818/msgs/252068.html