Posted by den2 on July 14, 2003, at 0:21:46
Is it possible to achieve doses of mirtazapine that cause substantial and sustained blockade of the 5-HT2A, 5-HT2C and 5-HT3 receptor without producing substantial or theraputic alpha 2 antagonism action? Since mirtazapine is more potent at blocking 5-ht2/5-ht3 receptors than it is at blocking alpha-2 receptors shouldn't a dose of 7.5 mgs should block the serotonin receptors without producing substantial alpha 2 antagonism?
poster:den2
thread:241617
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20030708/msgs/241617.html