Posted by Taylor123 on May 13, 2003, at 17:19:01
If a person who encouters steroid-induced psychosis does not recieve a diagnosis of psychotic disorder (and hence get stigmatised -by some uneducated people, with a psyc. disorder)
Why then does AD-induced mania warrant a diagnosis of BPII?
I am aware of the theories of latent activation of BP disorder by AD use, but for myself, I have no Fam history of BP disorder.
This is the thing, it is just a theory.
I don't know why I am so worked up about the diagnosis, but I guess it's because it has ramifications and repurcussions (need spell check?!) for my job.
Does anyone have any thoughts?
Thanx for your ideas / info/ thoughts
Best wishes
Taylor
poster:Taylor123
thread:226423
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20030505/msgs/226423.html