Posted by Janelle on April 23, 2003, at 13:56:56
I still do NOT get this - if Lexapro is supposed to be only the *active* half of CELEXA, then why oh why do people report significant problems while on Lexapro? I don't get it - I would THINK that Lexapro would be the *purest* of the current SSRI' (because before it came along, Celexa was considered the purest), so why is Lexapro so problematic?
The whole thing leads me to believe that there IS something *worthwhile* in the supposedly inactive half of Celexa that was removed from Lexapro.
I'm currently on Celexa and knock on wood, it is working in combo with other meds I'm taking.
Someone I know needs to find a pdoc and go on an a-d; I recommended starting with Celexa or Lexapro, but now I'm having second thoughts about the Lexapro. Of course, everyone is different and if she goes on Lexapro she might have a good reaction to it. But from what I read, good reactions to it are few and far between! I read of many more good reactions to Celexa.
Originally I wanted to switch because I figured why take a med (Celexa) with only half of it being active, but based on the Lexapro anecdotal evidence, forget it. I'm doing okay on what I've got; I'm sticking to it.
But I just don't get the deal with Lexapro supposedly being only the active half of Celexa yet apparently missing something that would increase good reactions to it.
poster:Janelle
thread:221775
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20030423/msgs/221775.html