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Re: Overgeneralization

Posted by utopizen on February 7, 2003, at 17:43:02

In reply to Overgeneralization » utopizen, posted by JonW on February 7, 2003, at 9:08:59

>I know I'd appreciate it if you rephrased what you said.
>
> Jon

Jon,

Most only means greater than 50%. That's what I was basing it on. I was basing it on every clinical trial I ever read that the drug companies use to brag about their meds. So if the drug co.'s thing 30% (rather than most) is something to brag about, why should I make it up?

Obviously, most people don't get remission from SSRIs on their social anxiety, and I'm getting that DIRECTLY from the most highly acclaimed psychopharmacology department in the country-- MGH/Boston.

Here's the article:
http://www.mghmadi.org/curbside/index.html

Oh, and I'd like to ask you what you're basing the "general pop" figure on if not a clinical trial--- what, a Gallop poll? How is a clinical trial LESS of an indicator for what the general pop will find?

It's not even a generalization anyway, so how could it be an over-generalization?


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