Posted by bluedog on November 19, 2002, at 20:56:24
In reply to Re: The truth about the french paradox?, posted by Larry Hoover on November 19, 2002, at 13:56:03
> >
> > By the way, based on the above linked article and by way of reverse logic, given the rates of depression you quoted, is it the case that US citizens eat quite a bit more fish than citizens in France, Germany, Canada and New Zealand?
> >
> > The mind boggles!!... and the plot Thickens!!!
>
> Go to that Lancet article, and you can see for yourself. The plots are fish consumption v. incidence of depression.
Hmmm. I've had a look at the article and I think I see another paradox. Rather than the French paradox we now have the USA PARADOX. In other words despite eating on average LESS fish than the the French USA citizens actually have lower rates of depression than the French.Perhaps people enjoy eating their fish more in the USA than in France? (LOL)
On a more serious note looking at the evidence I believe even more strongly now that there is a serious problem with the measurement and reporting of the rates of depression in the USA. My opinion is that, just like in Japan, there is a greater social stigma attached to mental illness in the USA and this stodgier attitude probably means that sufferers of depression are less likely to seek treatment.
On the other hand Europeans (and particularly the French but NOT the British) are generally viewed as being more emotional than Americans (witness two men hugging or kissing in public when they greet eachother without fearing that everyone will consider them gay).
The British, just like the Americans are more uptight about emotional displays. In the article that I used to start this thread it points out that the French have a higher rate of consumption for anxiolytic drugs than the British and I think that my theory could account for the higher use.
Just my humble opinion
poster:bluedog
thread:128270
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20021116/msgs/128383.html