Posted by SLS on October 30, 2002, at 7:26:31
In reply to Citalopram pharmacology, posted by dr. dave on August 20, 2002, at 15:22:46
> The statement '10mg Lex is 40mg Celexa' doesn't make any sense.
I'm not sure if this refers to my post along another thread, but what I meant by Celexa 60mg = Lexapro 10mg is that they seem to be relatively equivalent therapeutic dosages. This is based upon my memory of the earliest personal anecdotal reports posted by people on PB. Since writing that, I think it looks more like Celexa 60mg = Lexapro 20mg. This is nothing more than my gross observations that I haven't documented. However, this in no way a statement of relative efficacy. Celexa 60mg might be less effective than Lexapro 20mg.> Let's get down to the science here - '10mg lex' is 10mg of s-citalopram. '40mg Celexa' is 20mg s-citalopram plus 20mg r-citalopram. That's different.
Celexa and Lexapro are different. Period.
http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20021006/msgs/123211.html
http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020906/msgs/119448.html
Do you feel you know enough about the brain, physiology, organic chemistry, and the pharmacology of these two drugs to state anything about getting down to science? I admit that I don't (not such a revelation). I just like doing thought experiments - you know - theory. My theories are constructed with great care but with insufficient knowledge for them to be worth a damn.
> A study has been presented claiming 10mg Lexapro is as effective as 40mg Celexa - but Jack Gorman in his meta-analysis of the research states that this study was too small to demonstrate differences in efficacy. The result of one small trial is not necessarily the complete and absolute truth.
I think that empirical observation is essential to help validate the musings of theoreticians.
- Scott
poster:SLS
thread:109458
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20021025/msgs/125788.html