Posted by North on September 12, 2002, at 2:32:42
In reply to Re: hypomania...reaction to antidepressants?, posted by bookgurl99 on September 12, 2002, at 0:13:13
I would agree with BG99 that by today's definition, one is not bipolar by virtue of becoming hypomanic, or manic, from antidepressants. There is talk that in the future DSM's you will have a BP 3 which would cover some of those people. I suppose their treatment would be to avoid AD's, or give stabilizers with AD's.
By the way, I'm BP1, and my sister became hypomanic from an SSRI.
poster:North
thread:119591
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020906/msgs/119607.html