Posted by pharmrep on August 22, 2002, at 22:50:59
In reply to The point » pharmrep, posted by Anyuser on August 22, 2002, at 21:40:58
> I get it that 10mg of Lexapro is supposed to be equivalent to 40mg Celexa. However, two thirds of practitioners prescribe less than 40mg Celexa. If you buy the 10=40 equivalence, there is a sizeable difference between the potency of Lexapro that Forest recommends and apparently expects to be prescribed and the potency of Celexa that 2/3 of doctors prescribe today.
** good observation. Although indicated from 20-60mg...Celexa did not get used by the majority of internist/general practitioners beyond 40mg. Why...we arent sure...mostly it seems that without specific training...most family practices dont want to take "unknown risks" so they would not want to go too high in their mind. This group of doctors represents the largest segment of prescribers. Psychs ,although willing to titrate higher and having the training to observe more properly...represent a smaller percentage of prescribing doctors. Since effacacy and tolerability are seen earlier at a higher dose, that is why 10mg is used. This will probably result in many more patients being treated at the general practice level, and not necessarily being referred to psychs as often (assuming the patient is seeing the desired results.)
This is mine and the opinions of others at our meetings...no official Forest statement...if I get one, I will let you know.
poster:pharmrep
thread:109458
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020821/msgs/117452.html