Posted by Paul Armstrong on August 19, 2002, at 10:32:48
My doctor recently switched my prescription from Celexa 10mg (1/2 pill) pill form to liquid form (10mg=5ML). She then gave me a syringe (without the needle) and told me that 5CC is the equivalent of 5ML. Is this even TRUE? How can that be?
Thank you for your response.
poster:Paul Armstrong
thread:116934
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020814/msgs/116934.html