Posted by Elizabeth on June 7, 2002, at 1:48:48
In reply to why is buspar not an 'antipsychotic'?, posted by katekite on May 28, 2002, at 22:01:41
Buspar was initially tested as an antipsychotic because of molecular similarities to haloperidol. Schizophrenic patients took doses as high as 2400 mg (not a typo). It was found ineffective.
Also, D2 blockade by Buspar is really quite minimal when compared with that of effective antipsychotics.
BTW, it's not really known whether the NE autoreceptor antagonist metabolite 1-(2-pyrimidinyl)piperazine (1-PP) really contributes at all to the observed effects of Buspar. I believe that Buspar does antagonize some of the behavioral effects of clonidine in mice, though, so maybe it does contribute.
poster:Elizabeth
thread:107902
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020602/msgs/109026.html