Posted by AllieD on June 2, 2002, at 16:37:58
In reply to Re: rediagnosis: bipolar II, posted by lizbeth on June 2, 2002, at 12:58:08
Elizabeth,
I'm aware of the differences between bipolar I and II, but hadn't heard of III -- can you tell me what this is?
I'm interested, of course, because I'm one of those for whom antidepressants never worked, but they didn't necessarily make me manic, either. Who knows -- my doctors tend to tell me that the actual diagnosis doesn't matter much, but of course I'm always looking for something that I "fit".
Allie
> I think that at least 30% of people being treated by Primary Care docs with AD's have underlying BP, whether it be I, II, or III. The reason we may be seeing more diagnosing of it is because the AD's are being used a LOT more than used to, because SSRI's are less of a OD risk than old-school TCA's. And, the longer people are on AD's without a moodstabilizer, the worse the BP gets.
>
poster:AllieD
thread:108402
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020602/msgs/108453.html