Posted by mat on April 29, 2002, at 5:41:51
In reply to Re: bipolar I without depression? » mat, posted by judy1 on April 29, 2002, at 2:55:25
> Hi!
> It's really rare but does happen, (mania without depression). Remember the DSM is just a tool for classification for insurance companies mostly and sponsered by pharmaceutical companies so they can target drugs at a specific 'label'. I know my shrink who specializes in bipolar told me he only had 1 patient among several hundred bp 1's that just had 1 manic episode and he didn't keep her on drugs long term. Usually when something like that happens it's in response to an AD or organic disorder, but like I said it happens. A manic episode (or hypomanic episode) is what differentiates unipolar and bipolar disorder. Did I make sense? Take care, Judyhi!
does that mean that in the case of a person that's currently experiencing his/her first manic episode (without a preceding depressiive episode), you consider him to be bipolar bacause the probability that this person will also get through depressive episodes in the future is so high? actually this is a more a "prognosis" than a "diagnosis".
thank's a lot for your answer in advance
mat
poster:mat
thread:104301
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020425/msgs/104397.html