Posted by SLS on April 8, 2002, at 16:42:27
In reply to Is Ambien a Benzodiazapine?, posted by fachad on April 8, 2002, at 9:22:22
> I think Ambien IS a benzodiazepine.
> The whole argument turns on semantics and your definition of what is or is not a benzodiazepine.
Well, I think the term "benzodiazepine" is indeed based upon chemical structure. However, the "benzodiazepine receptor" was named as such only because nothing else was found to bind to it initially. Ambien (zolpidem) does bind to the benzodiazepine receptor as an agonist, and thus acts as the key to unlock the door to the GABA neurotransmitter receptor. Because of this, I imagine both drugs behave similarly. Unlike many of the BZDs (or all of them - I don't know), zolpidem is selective for the GABA(A) BZD-1 receptor. Zopiclone (Imovane) is also selective for this receptor.
Do you think there is any cross-tolerance between a benzodiazepine and one of the newer BZD receptor agonists?
- Scott
poster:SLS
thread:102375
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020408/msgs/102405.html