Posted by crepuscular on April 3, 2002, at 16:39:23
reading through the many posts here, it is amazing to see how different drugs affect different people. on the one hand we have a cluster of symptoms that might be similar between people and result in an identical diagnosis.
on the other, we have the medications they respond to, which might be completely different. what role - if any - might the class of medication which one responds to play in the assignment of an actual diagnosis?
short of actually having a conversation with the neurons themselves, perhaps subtypes of these disorders could be identified by medication responses.
or maybe it's too idiosyncratic for any kind of generalization. any thoughts on this?
poster:crepuscular
thread:101711
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020402/msgs/101711.html