Posted by Chris A. on November 4, 2001, at 15:05:25
Does anyone know if bipolar exacerbated with PMDD is considered a good enough reason in the US to have a bilateral oophorectomy (removal of ovaries)? I can't take the usual SSRIs for PMDD because they cause cycling of the bipolar. The hormonal shifts throw my HPA axis off enough that I get suicidal. I would like to better informed when I go see a gyn this week. My logic says that eliminating the
shifts in hormones and taking continual HRT would level the roller coaster a bit. Any feedback would be appreciated.Thanks,
Chris A.
poster:Chris A.
thread:83189
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20011104/msgs/83189.html