Posted by Zo on July 16, 2001, at 18:08:55
In reply to Re: AD-provoked hypomania - is it irrelevant?! » Zo, posted by Elizabeth on July 15, 2001, at 18:18:02
>
> I'm like that too: I'm very individualistic and don't like being categorised.
>
> Your pdoc actually sounds kind of funny, though.
>
> -elizabethHe is. Thank god. If one didn't have a gallows humor, at times. . .perish the thought. (Is that a pun?)
And, to answer my own thread, from medscape:
Hypomania During Antidepressant Treatment
Another burning question, vital for private practice, pertains to hypomania that becomes first manifest upon pharmacologic challenge with antidepressants. DSM-IV and ICD-10 have regrettably deleted them from inclusion as a bipolar condition. This is a regrettable decision, because an extensive literature pre-DSM-IV was strongly in favor of including such patients within the rubric of bipolar disorders, and new reports have been published since then. These studies were recently exhaustively reviewed in a US-European consensus [13] on the bipolar spectrum. The unanimous decision was that these patients represented a variant of bipolar disorder judged by the fact that during prospective course they often pursue an unmistakable bipolar course. An excess of familial bipolarity is another line of strong evidence for their inclusion in the bipolar spectrum.
poster:Zo
thread:69495
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20010714/msgs/70368.html