Posted by Elizabeth on July 12, 2001, at 19:46:32
In reply to Re: AD-provoked hypomania - is it diagnostic? » Zo, posted by judy1 on July 12, 2001, at 10:34:44
> I know a lot of us on this board react differently to the same med, and isn't zyprexa a form of a benzodiazepine
Chemically it is somewhat related to the benzodiazepines (Valium, Ativan, etc.). Pharmacologically it has no relationship to them.
> And yes while I also 'eat like a horse', I find it a very sedating drug (like Mellaril).
Not an unusual combination. Both side effects (sedation and appetite stimulation) are attributed (at least to some degree) to histamine (H1) blockade.
> But I also know that xanax can trigger mania
It can cause certain types of disinhibition. I'm unclear on the hypomania issue. OTOH, it is an antidepressant for some people, and *any* effective AD has the potential to trigger mania.
-elizabeth
poster:Elizabeth
thread:69495
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20010708/msgs/69900.html