Posted by Mitch on June 29, 2001, at 21:17:33
In reply to Re: What's worked 4 folks 4 BP II or other maladies?, posted by MM on June 29, 2001, at 18:41:34
AKC,
I mentioned that in a casual manner. I have had thyroid tumor and only have half a thyroid gland and I had some tremendous panic anxiety just before the tumor started growing. AND my TSH hormones, etc. showed normal. I guess the gist of what I am saying is: What if BPII is primarily "spikes" of hormones in your system that create the mood disturbance. In otherwords a complex interplay of the endocrine system that is not balanced that triggers problems with your brain? Say, your pancreas, thryoid, parathyroid, thalamus, adrenals, hypothalamus-in short, the glands that regulate your sleep/wake cycle, your alertness, your moods in an indirect manner are malfunctioning in a way that eludes measurement (such as hormone blood testing)? I mean has anyone taken someone who is dx'ed as BP-II for example and monitored ALL of their hormone levels *continuously* over a period of WEEKS before???
I don't know about any research findings regarding this, does anyone out there do?
Mitch
> Mitch can you explain what a neuro-endocrine disturbance is? (you don't have to go in to detail)
> I think that BPII is a trendy diagnosis right now, or at least I've heard it is. It doesn't seem like anyone should be diagnosed based on the fact they've had a rage, or they've had a really good day. It doesn't seem like pdoc's want to take the time to go through life events that could have an effect on how we feel. Is normal being immune to being effected by bad things happening to you? The theory is that your brain chemicals are already messed up, but it is possible that your brain chemicals are reacting to the way you feel about a certain thing happening. It usually takes a stressful event to "bring out" the dormant (already there) disorder, but how do they know any "normal" person wouldn't react the same way? The manifestations of a bunch of different disorders being called BPII kind of scares me after reading that pdoc's think BP is schizophrenia, just with different symptoms. I wish I could read a lot of the research in BPII. If anticonvulsants work, then wouldn't the theory that BP is related to epilepsy, and therefore could throw off certain functions of the brain make sense? I really have no idea what I'm talking about. I guess all we can do is look for meds that work for this catch all dx, but that makes me wonder how you know a med is working? What does that look like? Especially with BPII, or mild bp, or cyclothmia?
poster:Mitch
thread:67368
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20010625/msgs/68409.html