Posted by Kingfish on June 26, 2001, at 18:41:50
Can anyone else share with me why they think their pdoc prescribes an AD and a mood stabilizer for Bipolar Disorder or BP II?
It seems to me that the right mood stabilizer alone should do the trick, but my pdoc just switched me from Celexa to Prozac to counteract my sedation problem with Topamax (which many of you are sick of hearing about) and it dawned on me too late that I should have asked this question (one AMenz had mentioned in a previous post).
I suppose I should point out that my "main" problem is depression, but I just recently came off a hypomanic episode and he felt I was depressed, which is probably true, but I'm afraid I'm just going to cycle back up.
So, why ever prescribe an AD for a Bipolar person?
Thanks!
- K.
poster:Kingfish
thread:68001
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20010625/msgs/68001.html