Posted by mikes on May 3, 2001, at 21:48:59
Please forgive me in advance for being a bit dumb and inarticulate, I am experiencing mild zoloft WD and I'm not in a state of complete cognitive function right now.
Why does everyone sh** a brick when they see that a drug produces a high? I like being high personally, I have usually felt better during highs than any antidepressants have made me feel. How do you define a high anyway? I would define a good day with the meds as being high. When thoughts come thru my head and they go through a good filter, like they do when the ad's are working right, i consider that to be a high.......its exactly the same thing that happens when im stoned. However, if something bad happens, I get a bad feeling, and I deal with it, on either drug. What exactly are the differences here? What is so wrong with being euphoric? Is it okay to induce euphoria without drugs? Like by winning the lottery, or some crap like that? I'm sure you're thinking yes, that is a good/real reason to be happy, and it is correct for your body to respond by making you happy. But then why shouldn't I be happy over getting some good bud and smoking it? Cause it's not a "real" reason to be happy? Something acting on my anandamide(sp?) receptors is a good reason to be happy. But it's not a real one. Because a real one would be something that was beneficial to me, something that would make me more successful (more likely to reproduce, when you narrow it down). Fortunately, some of us are smart enough to see around this bs, and stimulate our pleasure systems anyway even though there is no good reason to.
poster:mikes
thread:61572
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20010424/msgs/61572.html