Posted by blackjack on April 7, 2001, at 19:28:17
I was just thinking about this. Since Parkinson's seems to be rooted in some kind of hypofunction of the dopamine system, and some atypical depressions (like mine) are also best treated with dopaminergic agents, is there any indication that depressives are more likely than most to develop Parkinsosn's later on?
poster:blackjack
thread:59061
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20010403/msgs/59061.html