Posted by John Bostelman on September 8, 1998, at 8:20:36
A urine test was performed on someone with a long history of Benzodiazepine addiction. He claimed to be taking Zoloft but no Benzodiazapines. The test showed positive to Codeine and Doxylamine, but no evidence of Zoloft or Benzodiazapine.
The logical conclusion is sample switching, however, could this result be suggestive of deliberate masking? If so, what is the likely interraction,
to create the masking effect?
poster:John Bostelman
thread:560
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/19990101/msgs/560.html