Posted by Phil on July 3, 2014, at 22:46:44
In reply to Re: generics can vary up to 45%, posted by linkadge on July 3, 2014, at 19:20:31
but comparing two generics but not one generic to brand is this possible
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3150029/
At least theoretically, in the case of two generic drugs administration may exist individuals who can show a difference in Cmax and AUC up to 45% between the two drugs! We can imagine that a patient receives a drug with drug bioavailability parameters located at one end of target range -20%, compared with the brand drug while there is and another patient who received another generic drug with parameters of bioavailability as upper limit of + 25% compared with the original product. If we add to this range and tolerance between quantities of active ingredient from the same batch - of +/- 5%, resulting that between two generic drugs may exist theoretical differences that might go to extremes up to 55%! This is why the authorities in the field of medicine do not put equal sign between two generic (9).
poster:Phil
thread:1067865
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20140609/msgs/1067880.html