Psycho-Babble Medication | about biological treatments | Framed
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Re: wait a second?

Posted by linkadge on November 5, 2006, at 16:05:31

In reply to Re: wait a second? linkadge, posted by Squiggles on November 5, 2006, at 13:58:45

>Most of my reading on this subject proposes
>that alcohol, or drugs, or shock, can induce
>a full-blown psychotic state, BUT only in
>people who already have a natural propensity to
>become ill given the right trigger at the right
>time.

Well, I am proposing that there need not be any history, or predisposition to a mental disorder for one to have a negative reacton to a medication. When you're on antidepressants, you're on drugs. Cocaine for instance, will induce euphoria in 99% of people who take it.
Thats not a manic episode, and no prior mental history is needed.

As far as seizures go, a drug can induce a seizure in anyone. Sure, some will have a higher seizure threshold, but a higher dose of a drug could still induce a seizure. Same thing goes with any drug. You are altering the brain chemistry, and there are no guarentees after that.

Its like coffee. If the dose is high enough, caffine can induce anxiety/panic in just about everybody.

People taking a antidepressant already have one strike against them. They have a mental illness. At that point, it is very easy to dismis drug effects as an additional mental illness.

Doctors are always denying that antidepressants can cycling in normal people. When a doctor dignoses bipolar disorder based on a reaction to an antidepresant, they are ignoring the possability that the drug was the sole cause of the manic episode. As a result, an individual suffers years of mood stabilizers, when the mania may well have abated upon dose reduction of the antidepressant.


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URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20061104/msgs/700659.html