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Re: Biopsychosocial vs Biological Reductionism

Posted by Estella on September 2, 2006, at 12:44:34

In reply to Re: Biopsychosocial vs Biological Reductionism finelinebob, posted by Estella on September 2, 2006, at 12:39:38

Lets say that A's brain is more normal than similar to the average of disorder x.

Lets say that the average of disorder x have 'heightened activity in region y'.

Lets say that people say 'people with disorder x have heightened activity in region y'.

Lets say that people say 'individual A has disorder x because they have heightened activity in region y'.

Lets say that individual A is given drug B because drug B reduces activity in region y.

Er... How do we know that drug B reduces activity in region y?? Does it do this for each individual in a group or on the basis of averages once more?

Even if individual A does have heightened activity in region Y what does that do for A?

There might be another individual Z that has heightened activity in region Y yet this person is a model of psychological health.

What would reducing activity in region Y do for Z?

Doesn't anybody else worry about this?

Am I missing something?

(Lol more to the point... What am I missing?)


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poster:Estella thread:680731
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20060901/msgs/682299.html