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Re: why is buspar not an 'antipsychotic'? katekite

Posted by Ritch on May 29, 2002, at 8:47:34

In reply to why is buspar not an 'antipsychotic'?, posted by katekite on May 28, 2002, at 22:01:41

> Buspar has an agonist effect at 5HT1a receptors and an antagonist effect at DA2 receptors.
>
> This doesn't seem real different from some of the newer atypical antipsychotics. Is it just that it didn't work for psychosis and they thought, hey, we'll label this for anxiety because we can label anything for anxiety.... or is there a reason?
>
> any thoughts?
>
> kate


Kate,

If you look closer into the pharmachology section of Buspar's monograph it mentions dopamaine receptor antagonist *and* agonist activity. So buspirone has "mixed" effects (and probably not very strong effects either)at DA receptors. Where buspirone packs the punch is in its strong agonist activity at the 5-HT1a receptors you mentioned. Probaby the 2nd most potent activity is a2-adrenoreceptor antagonism (by one of its metabolites). I think they never intended buspirone (the developers) to be an antipsychotic. When it was being developed (in the late 70's early '80's I think)they were looking for a *non*benzodiazepine to treat anxiety and that was thought to be a really big goldmine since it wasn't "addictive" and wasn't a controlled substance, and patients could be switched off of cheap generic benzos and put on a non-addictive but pricey patent medicine instead. :)

Mitch


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poster:Ritch thread:107902
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020525/msgs/107925.html