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Posted by JohnBoy2000 on October 17, 2018, at 13:05:51
Obviously mirtazapine is blocking alpha 2 receptors - disinhibiting release.
SSRI's are blocking the SER transporter.
Base mechanisms aside - does the increased serotonergic activity via either approach - differ in terms of outcome?
I mean, you'd imagine once synaptic transmitter is raised, post synaptic receptor activation occurs - and that's not really gonna differentiate the means by which the SER molecule is maintained or introduced into the synaptic cleft - is it?
But then you may have varying neuronal projections - which causes the brain areas stimulated by enhanced SER to differ between the two?As in, mirtazapine blocking alpha 2 receptors in the raphe and locus cerolus, causes disinhibition or release of serotonin, in the cortex - perhaps excluding other brain area's that would in fact be reached via a transporter blocker??
In other words - is it possible that alpha 2 blockers like Mirtazapine might miss certain brain regions than transporter blockers like Zoloft?
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