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Dr. Bob is Robert Hsiung, MD,
bob@dr-bob.orgShown: posts 1 to 10 of 10. This is the beginning of the thread.
Posted by Laney on January 23, 2012, at 15:29:13
SSRI alone for depression, you go into what could be determined to be mania?
My 15 year old nephew got increasingly worse after a family doc doubled his dose of an SSRI (not sure which one).
They think his problems might be that he might be bipolar.
Thanks!
Alayna
Posted by Christ_empowered on January 23, 2012, at 16:25:23
In reply to Does it mean you have bipolar if after taking an, posted by Laney on January 23, 2012, at 15:29:13
No, it doesn't. Don't fall for that. Drug-induced crazy is different from non-drug induced crazy. My advice: withdraw the offending drug and check back after a couple months. If he goes manic, you'll know it.
Posted by Phillipa on January 23, 2012, at 17:47:15
In reply to Does it mean you have bipolar if after taking an, posted by Laney on January 23, 2012, at 15:29:13
Laney what was your nephew put on an ad for? What behavior? Once they gave my Grandson an SSRI as a young teen for what they called oppositional behavior disorder. Which wasn't true it was just a phase you went through troubles in the marriage at that now. He takes no meds as a 21 year old and manages a franchise fast food place. When on the SSRI he walked into boxes and knocked them over in stores when out with his Dad. Took him off and was find. Phillipa
Posted by Raisinb on January 23, 2012, at 19:08:51
In reply to Does it mean you have bipolar if after taking an, posted by Laney on January 23, 2012, at 15:29:13
No! There need to be other signs, too.
Posted by sigismund on January 24, 2012, at 22:29:52
In reply to Re: Does it mean you have bipolar if after taking an » Laney, posted by Phillipa on January 23, 2012, at 17:47:15
>Once they gave my Grandson an SSRI as a young teen for what they called oppositional behavior disorder.
That is just terrible. Can you imagine 'Empty culture depressive disorder'? They will never make boredom and emptiness a disease (the drugs would be too much fun), and neither should they, so why do in this case? Because the drugs are flattening. It is psychiatry as discipline and punishment.
Posted by Phillipa on January 24, 2012, at 23:49:03
In reply to Re: Does it mean you have bipolar if after taking an » Phillipa, posted by sigismund on January 24, 2012, at 22:29:52
Sigi that is the first time you have made perfect sense to me. Chemical restraints is what it was. PJxx
Posted by Christ_empowered on January 25, 2012, at 7:00:08
In reply to Re: Does it mean you have bipolar if after taking an » sigismund, posted by Phillipa on January 24, 2012, at 23:49:03
I second the notion that psychiatric drugs are used as torture and punishment. The last time I was in a mental hospital, I was hyperkinetic and antsy from the risperdal+depakote. I pace all around the ward. This d-bag resident said "I bet he'll be begging for a benzo."
Medical torture at its finest.
Posted by bleauberry on January 26, 2012, at 5:25:04
In reply to Does it mean you have bipolar if after taking an, posted by Laney on January 23, 2012, at 15:29:13
Most docs would say yes that looks like bipolar. I happen to disagree. To me it simply means the person's body regjects that particular medication molecule violently because whatever that med is doing is wrong wrong wrong for that person.
Call it bipolar, call a bad reaction, whatever, to me none of that matters. What does matter is getting the person off the offending substance as safely and rapidly as possible and take a different approach.
In other words, one does not need to have bipolar to react bizarrely to an SSRI. SSRIs themselves can do some bizarre stuff to perfectly healthy normal people.
Posted by SLS on January 26, 2012, at 8:19:38
In reply to Does it mean you have bipolar if after taking an, posted by Laney on January 23, 2012, at 15:29:13
> SSRI alone for depression, you go into what could be determined to be mania?
>
> My 15 year old nephew got increasingly worse after a family doc doubled his dose of an SSRI (not sure which one).
>
> They think his problems might be that he might be bipolar.
In my layman opinion, I think that a manic reaction to antidepressants more than likely indicates a bipolar diathesis (vulnerability). There might not be an absolute 1:1 associaton, but I think the incidence is pretty high. One must take into consideration that even cortisone can precipitate manic and psychotic reactions. I am not so sure what this indicates regarding bipolar vulnerability, but this can happen with people who have no history of mental illness. Of course, there must be a vulnerability of some sort, otherwise, it wouldn't happen.
- Scott
Posted by Laney on January 26, 2012, at 19:24:39
In reply to Re: Does it mean you have bipolar if after taking an » Laney, posted by SLS on January 26, 2012, at 8:19:38
Thank you all for your input!
Laney
This is the end of the thread.
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