Posted by Girlnterrupted78 on August 23, 2007, at 3:00:34
In reply to Re: Nardil completely suppresses REM sleep, posted by linkadge on August 21, 2007, at 19:40:19
This stuff is really new for me, so I don't quite understand everything. But I did a search and found this:
CONCLUSIONS: Antidepressant response to phenelzine treatment does not depend on elimination of REM sleep or inhibition of SWA in non-REM sleep. In depressed patients, REM sleep is regulated independently from non-REM sleep and can be manipulated without altering the dynamics of SWA.
Just a question: Why would elimination of REM sleep have antidepressant effects? Does this have anything to do with neurotransmitters? My understanding is that depression might be caused by a depletion or a lack of serotonin, dopamine, norepinephrine, GABA, etc. What is the role of REM in here?
Thanks for the info
poster:Girlnterrupted78
thread:777643
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20070815/msgs/777962.html